Question : Which of the following committee report/reports is/are associated with Protection of Western Ghats?

1. Gadgil Committee Report
2. Kasturirangan Committee Report
3. TSR Subramanian Committee Report

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

Recently, as Kerala hotly debated the Supreme Court order for maintaining at least a kilometre of Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) for protected areas, the WGEEP report, popularly known as the Gadgil report, once again springs back to public discourse in Kerala.
The Gadgil Committee Report and Kasturirangan Committee Report are related to the Protection of Western Ghats. Gadgil was the chairman of the WGEEP which submitted a 522 page-report to the Ministry of Environment and Forests in 2011. Calling the Western Ghats region as “The Protector of Indian Peninsula”, Gadgil in his report suggested the designation of the entire region as Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) and had classified the 142 taluks in the ghats into ESA 1, 2 and 3. Kasturirangan Committee Report classified 60% of the Western Ghats as a cultural landscape with human settlements, agriculture and plantations. Remaining area was termed as natural landscape, with37% “biologically rich” area, close to 60,000 sq km. Only 37% classified as an ecologically sensitive area (ESA). The report categorized areas on the basis of their ecological sensitivity.
T.S.R Subramanian committee report on environment aims to review the country's green laws and the procedures followed by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). It suggested several amendments to align with the Government's economic development agenda.

Source:
The Hindu
Indian Express

Question : Consider the following statements regarding one of the most solemn occasions in the Parliamentary calendar - the President’s Address 

1. In India, the practice of the President addressing Parliament can be traced back to the Government of India Act of 1919.
2. When the Constitution came into force, the President was required to address each session of Parliament. 
3. Article 87 of the constitution provides two instances when the President specially addresses both Houses of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 and 2 only
3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

• In India, the practice of the President addressing Parliament can be traced back to the Government of India Act of 1919.
• This law gave the Governor-General the right of addressing the Legislative Assembly and the Council of State. The law did not have a provision for a joint address, but the Governor-General did address the Assembly and the Council together on multiple occasions. There was no address by him to the Constituent Assembly (Legislative) from 1947 to 1950. 
• Hence, 1st Statement is correct.
• When the Constitution came into force, the President was required to address each session of Parliament. So, during the provisional Parliament in 1950, President Prasad gave an address before every session. 
• The First Amendment to the Constitution in 1951 changed this position and made the President’s address once a year.
• Hence, 2nd Statement is correct.
• Article 87 provides two special occasions on which the President addresses a joint sitting. 
• The first is to address the opening session of a new legislature after a general election. The second is to address the first sitting of Parliament each year. 
• A session of a new or continuing legislature cannot begin without fulfilling this requirement. 
• Hence, 3rd Statement is correct.

Question :

1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children.
2. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life 
3. Equal pay for equal work for men and women.
4. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to poor.

1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4

​Statement 1 is correct: 

• As it was added to the Article 39 of DPSP's through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.

Statement 2 is correct: 

• As it was added to th6e Article 48 A of DPSP's through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.

Statement 3 is not correct: 

• As it was a part of Article 39 of the original Constitution.

Statement 4 is correct: 

• As it was added to the Constitution through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, thus putting a new Article 39A.

Question :
Recognized Transgender people as a third gender 

Entry of Women in Temple and Mosques

Reservation in Local Self Government

• The five-judge Constitution Bench decision in K. Krishnamurthy (Dr.) v. Union of India (2010) wherein the Supreme Court had interpreted Article 243D (6) and Article 243T (6), which permit reservation by enactment of law for backward classes in panchayat and municipal bodies respectively, to hold that barriers to political participation are not the same as that of the barriers that limit access to education and employment.
• However, for creating a level playing field, reservation may be desirable as mandated by the aforementioned Articles which provide a separate constitutional basis for reservation, as distinct from what are conceived under Article 15 (4) and Article 16 (4) which form the basis for reservation in education and employment.
• Though reservation to local bodies is permissible, the top court declared that the same is subject to empirical finding of backwardness in relation to local bodies as fulfilled through the three tests.
• This is famously referred as ‘Triplet Test’.

Question :

1. Rights are necessary for the sustenance of a democracy.
2. Rights protect minorities from the oppression of the majority.
3. Rights are reasonable claims of persons recognised by society.

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
1 and 3 only

• Rights are necessary for the very sustenance of a democracy. In a democracy every citizen has to have the right to vote and the right to be elected to government. For democratic elections to take place, it is necessary that citizens should have the right to express their opinion, form political parties and take part in political activities. 
• Statement 1 is correct:
• Rights protect minorities from the oppression of majority. They ensure that the majority cannot do whatever it likes. Rights are guarantees which can be used when things go wrong. Things may go wrong when some citizens may wish to take away the rights of others. This usually happens when those in majority want to dominate those in the minority. The government should protect the citizens‘ rights in such a situation. But sometimes elected governments may not protect or may even attack the rights of their own citizens. That is why some rights need to be placed higher than the government, so that the government cannot violate them. In most democracies the basic rights of the citizen are written down in the constitution. 
• Statement 2 is correct:
• Right has to be recognised by the society we live in. Rights acquire meaning only in society. Every society makes certain rules to regulate our conduct. They tell us what is right and what is wrong. What is recognised by the society as rightful becomes the basis of rights. That is why the notion of rights changes from time to time and society to society. Two hundred years ago anyone who said that women should have the right to vote would have sounded strange. Today not granting them vote in Saudi Arabia appears strange.
• Statement 3 is correct:
• Thus, Option C is correct.

Question : Consider the following statements:

1. The selection of Secretary to the Government of India is made by the Prime Minister
2. The Secretary to the Government of India is administrative head of the Ministry/Department.
3. He is chief advisor to the minister on all aspects of policy and administrative affairs. 
4. He represents his ministry/department before the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are NOT correct?
1 only
1 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only

• A Secretary is designated as the Secretary to the Government of India, and not to his minister/ministry alone. He is administrative head of the Ministry/Department.
• His responsibility in this regard is complete and undivided. He is chief advisor to the minister on all aspects of policy and administrative affairs.
• He represents his ministry/department before the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.
• The Selection of the Secretary to the Government of India is made by Cabinet Secretary.

Question : Consider the following statements regarding the Censure motion:

1. Censure motion can be moved only in Lok Sabha or lower house in states
2. Censure motion can be moved against individual ministers or members
3. It must be specific and self-explanatory, stating the reasons for its adoption
4. If Censure motion is passed in the LokSabha, the council of ministers need to resign from the office.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are NOT correct? 

1 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
4 only

• Both censure motion and no-confidence motion can be moved in Lok Sabha or lower house in states.
• Statement 1 is correct
• While censure motion can be moved against individual ministers or members, no-confidence motion is moved against the entire council of ministers.
• Statement 2 is correct
• In case of censure motion, reasons must be stated for its adoption in the LokSabha.
• Statement 3 is correct:
• There is no impact on the government when a censure motion is passed, but the council of ministers have to resign and government collapses when a no-confidence motion is passed.
• Thus, Option 4 is incorrect.

Question :

1. No party has secured majority in a state assembly after General Elections or in the case of hung assembly.
2. Where the party having a majority in the assembly declines to form a ministry and the governor cannot find a coalition ministry commanding a majority in the assembly
3. Maladministration in the state or allegations of corruption against the ministry or stringent financial exigencies of the state.
4. When the state government is deliberately acting against the Constitution and the law or is fomenting a violent revolt.

1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4
1, 2 and 4
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question :

1. Office of profit has been defined in the Representation of People Act (RPA)
2. Constitutional disqualification procedure under Office of profit will be applicable if body in which the office is held has government powers
3. Provisions of office of Profit aim to lay down principle of separation of power between the legislature and the executive.

1 and 3 only
1 ,2 and 3

• Office of Profit
• Office of profit has not been defined in the constitution or under Representation of People Act (RPA), 1951 but different courts have interpreted it to mean a position with certain duties that are more or less of public character.
• Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Supreme Court in Pradyut Bordoloi vs Swapan Roy (2001) outlined the four broad principles for determining whether an office attracts the constitutional disqualification. These are:

1. Whether the government exercises control over appointment, removal and performance of the functions of the office
2. Whether the office has any remuneration attached to it
3. Whether the body in which the office is held has government powers (releasing money, allotment of land, granting licenses etc.).
4. Whether the office enables the holder to influence by way of patronage.

• Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
• The office of profit law simply seeks to enforce a basic feature of the Constitution- the principle of separation of power between the legislature and the executive.
• Therefore, statement 3 is correct.

Question : The concept of Integrated Judiciary in Indian constitution was borrowed from:

The USA constitution
Government of India Act,1935
British constitution
Irish constitution

Integrated Indian Judiciary

• The Indian Constitution has established an integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at the top and the high courts below it.( Unlike the American Constitution)
• Under a high court (and below the state level), there is a hierarchy of subordinate courts, that is, district courts and other lower Courts. This single system of courts, adopted from the Government of India Act of 1935, enforces both Central laws as well as the state laws.
• The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated on January 28, 1950. It succeeded the Federal Court of India, established under the Government of India Act of 1935.
• Therefore, option B is correct.

Question :

1. Judge of Supreme Court can be removed only by a presidential order on grounds of proven misbehaviour and/or incapacity. 
2. The SC’s powers and jurisdiction can only be added by the Parliament and not be curtailed. 
3. The SC has the power to punish any person for its contempt, as per Article 129. emergency.

2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

• The judges of the SC are given security of tenure. Once appointed, they will retain their office until the age of 65 years.
• They can be removed only by a presidential order on grounds of proven misbehaviour and/or incapacity. This requires a Special Majority according to Article 368. 
• The judges of the SC enjoy good salaries and allowances and these cannot be decreased except in the case of a financial emergency. The expenses of the High Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State, which is not subject to vote in the state legislature.
• The SC’s powers and jurisdiction can only be added by the Parliament and not be curtailed. 
• The conduct of any judge of the Supreme Court in the discharge of his/her duties cannot be discussed in the legislature.
• The SC has the power to punish any person for its contempt, as per Article 129. 
• A Directive Principle of State Policy says that the state shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the state. According to Article 50, there shall be a separate judicial service free from executive control.

Question :

• The summoning of Parliament is specified in Article 85 of the Constitution.
• The gap between two sessions of the Parliament cannot exceed 3 months, which means the Parliament meets at least four times in one year.
• The Constitution has fixed one-tenth strength as quorum, the minimum number of the members, required for both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

1 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only 
1, 2 and 3

• The summoning of Parliament is specified in Article 85 of the Constitution.
• Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Summoning is the process of calling all members of the Parliament to meet. The President summons each House of the Parliament from time to time. The gap between two sessions of the Parliament cannot exceed 6 months, which means the Parliament meets at least two times in one year.
• Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• The power to convene a session of Parliament rests with the Government. The decision is taken by the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs which is formalised by the President, in whose name MPs are summoned to meet for a session.
• India does not have a fixed parliamentary calendar. By convention (i.e. not provided by the Constitution), Parliament meets for three sessions in a year.
• The longest, Budget Session (1st session), starts towards the end of January, and concludes by the end of April or first week of May. The session has a recess so that Parliamentary Committees can discuss the budgetary proposals. The second session is the three-week Monsoon Session, which usually begins in July and finishes in August. Winter Session (3rd session), is held from November to December.
• Adjournment terminates the sitting of the House which meets again at the time appointed for the next sitting. The postponement may be for a specified time such as hours, days or weeks. If the meeting is terminated without any definite time/ date fixed for the next meeting, it is called Adjournment sine die.
• Prorogation is the end of a session. A prorogation puts an end to a session. The time between the Prorogation and reassembly is called Recess. Prorogation is the end of session and not the dissolution of the house (in case of Lok Sabha, as Rajya Sabha does not dissolve).
• Quorum refers to the minimum number of the members required to be present for conducting a meeting of the house. The Constitution has fixed one-tenth strength as quorum for both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Thus, to conduct a sitting of Lok Sabha, there should be at least 55 members present while to conduct a sitting of Rajya Sabha, there should be at least 25 members present
• Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Question :

1. The privilege motion is moved by a member when he feels that a minister or any member has committed a breach of privilege of the House or one or more of its members by withholding facts of a case or by giving wrong or distorted facts. 
2. The Constitution also extends the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any of its committees.
3. Article 105 of the Constitution expressly mentions two privileges, that is, freedom of speech in Parliament and right of publication of its proceedings.

1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3

• The privilege motion is moved by a member when he feels that a minister or any member has committed a breach of privilege of the House or one or more of its members by withholding facts of a case or by giving wrong or distorted facts. 
• The Members of Parliament are granted certain privileges individually and collectively so as to perform their duties properly. But if any of the members disregard or misuses any of these privileges or rights, it is considered as a breach of the privilege motion and is liable for punishment under the Parliamentary laws.
• Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the two Houses of Parliament, their committees and their members.
• Chapter 20 of rule 22 for Lok Sabha and Chapter 16 Rule 187 for the Rajya Sabha have mentioned the Privilege motion. 
• The Constitution also extends the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any of its committees. These include the Attorney General of India and Union ministers.
• The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the President who is also an integral part of the Parliament. Article 361 of the Constitution provides for privileges for the President.
• Article 105 of the Constitution expressly mentions two privileges, that is, freedom of speech in Parliament and right of publication of its proceedings.

Question :

1. The institutions of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919.
2. There is no specific qualifications are prescribed for being elected as the speaker.
3. The Speaker decides and certifies whether a bill is a money bill, such a certification is final.
4. Deputy speaker of Lok sabha is also elected by the house after the speaker on a day decided by speaker and he resigns by writing to the speaker.

1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 4 only
3 only
1. 2, 3 and 4

• The institutions of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated in India in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montague-Chelmsford Reforms).
• The constitution provides that the Speaker’s salary and allowances are not to be voted by the Parliament and are to be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
• No specific qualifications are prescribed for being elected as the speaker.
• The House can remove the Speaker through a resolution passed by an effective majority which means more than 50% of the total strength needs to vote for removing the Speaker. This is done as per Articles 94 and 96.
• The Speaker maintains order and decorum in the house for conducting its proceedings, he is the final interpreter regarding the constitution, rules of procedures and parliamentary conventions, in absence of quorum he can adjourn or suspend the house meeting, he can vote only in case of tie to resolve deadlocks.
• He decides and certifies whether a bill is a money bill, such a certification is final.
• Deputy speaker of Lok sabha is also elected by the house after the speaker on a day decided by speaker. His terms of office and grounds for removal and procedure for removal, provision for salary and allowances are same as speaker. He resigns by writing to the speaker.

Question : Consider the following statements: 

1. Article 157 and Article 158 of the Constitution of India specify eligibility requirements for the post of governor
2. Person who is not a citizen of India can also become governor.
3. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are not correct?

1 only
2 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only

• The Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
• The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
• Article 157 and Article 158 of the Constitution of India specify eligibility requirements for the post of governor.
• They are as follows:
  • A governor must: Be a citizen of India, Be at least 35 years of age, not be a member of the either house of the parliament or house of the state legislature, not hold any office of profit.
• The Governor shall not be a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of any State specified in the First Schedule, and if a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of any such State be appointed Governor, he shall be deemed to have vacated his seat in that House on the date on which he enters upon his office as Governor.
• The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Question : Consider the following statements about appointment of the Chief Justice of India:

1. The Constitution of India does not have any provision for criteria and procedure for appointing the Chief Justice of India (CJI)
2. For appointment of the Chief Justice of India, in the absence of a constitutional provision, the procedure relies on convention. The outgoing CJI recommends his successor – a practice, which is strictly based on seniority.
3. The Chief Justice of India and the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under Article 124 of the Constitution

Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

• The Constitution of India does not have any provision for criteria and procedure for appointing the CJI.
• Article 124(1) of the Indian Constitution says there “shall be a Supreme Court of India consisting of a Chief Justice of India”.
• The Chief Justice of India and the Judges of the Supreme Court (SC) are appointed by the President under Article 124 of the Constitution.
• The Union Law Minister forwards the recommendation to the Prime Minister who, in turn, advises the President.
• The collegium system is the system of appointment and transfer of judges that has evolved through judgments of the Supreme Court (Judges Cases), and not by an Act of Parliament or by a provision of the Constitution.
• The President administers the oath of office to the new CJI

Question : Consider the following statements regarding the Attorney General of India:

1. Attorney General is appointed by the President of India under Article 76 (1) of the Constitution
2. The term of office of the Attorney General of India is not fixed by the constitution
3. The Attorney General has the right of audience in all Courts in India, but he does not have a right to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament

Which the following statement(s) given above is/are not correct:
2 only
1 and 2 only
3 only
1 and 3 only

• The Attorney General for India is the central government’s chief legal advisor, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India.
• He is a part of the Union Executive. 
• He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
• The term of office of the Attorney General of India is not fixed by the Constitution. Even, the Constitution also does not mention the procedure and ground of his removal.
• The Attorney General is necessary for giving advice to the Government of India in legal matters referred to him. He also performs other legal duties assigned to him by the President.
• The Attorney General has the right of audience in all Courts in India as well as the right to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament, though not to vote.
• The Attorney General appears on behalf of Government of India in all cases (including suits, appeals and other proceedings) in the Supreme Court in which Government of India is concerned.
• He also represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
• The Attorney General can accept briefs, but cannot appear against the Government.
• He cannot defend an accused in the criminal proceedings and accept the directorship of a company without the permission of the Government.
• The Attorney General is assisted by two Solicitor General and four Additional Solicitor Generals.

Question :

1. The appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners shall be made by the President
2. They have a fixed tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
3. They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court (SC) of India

1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

• The Election Commission of India (ECI) is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India.
• It was established in accordance with the Constitution on 25th January 1950.
• The secretariat of the commission is located in New Delhi.
• Originally the commission had only one election commissioner; but after the Election Commissioner Amendment Act 1989, it has been made a multi-member body
• The Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and such number of other election commissioners, if any, as the President may from time-to-time fix.
• Presently, it consists of the CEC and two Election Commissioners.
• At the state level, the election commission is helped by the Chief Electoral Officer who is an IAS rank Officer.
• The President appoints CEC and Election Commissioners.
• They have a fixed tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court (SC) of India.
• Judges of High Courts and SC, CEC, Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) may be removed from office through a motion adopted by Parliament on grounds of ‘proved misbehaviour or incapacity’.
• Removal requires a special majority of 2/3rd members present and voting supported by more than 50% of the total strength of the house.
• The Constitution does not use the word ‘impeachment’, for the removal of the judges, CAG, CEC.

Question :
Article 112
Article 110
Article 114
Article  124

• Article 112- Defines Annual financial statement or the budget.
• Article 110- Defines the money bill.
• Article 114- says that the government can withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund only after receiving approval from Parliament.
• Article 123- defines the power of the President to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Parliament.

Question : Consider the following statements with respect to the Citizens’ Tele-Law Mobile App

1. e-interface platform Tele Law is a platform under the Digital India scheme to strengthen the pre-litigation mechanism in the country
2. The goal of this platform is to achieve Sabka Prayas Sabka Nyay to facilitate the last mile delivery of justice and legal aid services
3. Mobile App for optimizing the citizen-centric justice delivery mechanism; to make common people self-reliant and justice accessible to them

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3
1, 2 and 3

Question : Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates access to internet?
Right against Exploitation
Right to Freedom
Right to Constitutional Remedies
Right to Equality 

Access to internet as fundamental right:

• The Supreme Court in the year 2020 has declared access to internet as fundamental right. A government cannot deprive the citizens of fundamental rights except under certain conditions explicitly mentioned in the Constitution. The ruling came on hearing of a plea in connection with Internet blockade in Jammu and Kashmir.

• The Supreme Court ruling is also in sync with the United Nations recommendation that every country should make access to Internet a fundamental right. In India, Kerala had become the first state in 2017 to declare access to Internet "a basic human right”.

• Article 19 of the Constitution lists the following as fundamental rights under "Protection of certain rights". It says:

1. All citizens shall have the right:

• to freedom of speech and expression;
• to assemble peaceably and without arms;
• to form associations or unions;
• to move freely throughout the territory of India;
• to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
• to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business

Therefore, Option B is correct

Question : The ‘Basic Structure of the Constitution’ of India is:
a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
not part of the Constitution and has no legal effect independently of other parts

Question : The principle of Political neutrality to be followed by the Indian bureaucracy implies that:
1. Civil servants would not take a purely political position on policy matters.
2. Civil Servants would not implement schemes that have a political objective.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Persons working in the Civil Service are required to act in a politically neutral manner.
Statement 1 is correct: The requirement that state servants must be apolitical when carrying out their duties, functions and powers refers to political neutrality. Also they cannot contest for political offices and they will have to remain politically neutral in their day to day administrations.
Statement 2 is incorrect: because most policies have a political objective, but civil servants must implement these policies without any objections.

Question : The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, commonly known as The Lokpal Act, is an anti-corruption Act of Indian Parliament in India which "seeks to provide for the establishment of the institution of Lokpal to inquire into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries and for matters connecting them".
Who of the following comes under the purview of Lokpal?
1. Armed Forces
2. Prime Minister of India
3. Group ‘A’ or Group ‘B’ officers
4. Group ‘C’ or Group ‘D’ officials

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4

The following come under the jurisdiction of Lokpal:

• Prime Minister of India, under certain conditions as stipulated in the adjacent box.
• All ministers of the Union
• Members of Parliament except for matters related to article 105 of constitution. (that is anything said or a vote given by him in Parliament)
• Group ‘A’ or Group ‘B’ officers
• Group ‘C’ or Group ‘D’ officials
• Any person who is or has been in-charge (director / manager/ secretary) of anybody / society set up by central act or any other body financed / controlled by central government.
• Any other person involved in act of abetting, bribe giving or bribe taking

Question : Consider the following statements:

1. In Vice-Presidential election, both elected and nominated members of the Parliament can vote
2. Nominated member can be appointed as a Union Minister
3. State legislative assemblies elected members can vote in Vice-Presidential election
4. Only from Lok Sabha Cabinet ministers are included

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only

Election of Vice President:

• Electoral-college of vice –President is different from the electoral-college for the election of the President in the following two respects:
• Vice President consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of president, only elected members).
• It does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies (in the case of President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included).
• A nominated member can be appointed as a Union Minister and the Cabinet ministers can include members from both houses of the parliament

Question :
1 and 2 only
3 only
2 only
1 and 3 only

Question :
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Question :
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3only
1, 2 and 3

Question :
1 only

2 only
Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2